http://www.afr.com/p/markets/lies_damned_lies_and_auction_clearance_W8TRvTb1y7Uh84PjPdsWfJ
"I believe the current formulas used to calculate auction clearance rates are inherently flawed and biased. To illustrate my point, turn the question around; what does the general public understand the auction clearance rate to mean and how is it actually calculated?
I’m sure most would think that the auction clearance rate would represent the percentage of properties that sold on any given weekend. Unfortunately that simple explanation is not the case.
I’m sure most would think that the auction clearance rate would represent the percentage of properties that sold on any given weekend. Unfortunately that simple explanation is not the case.
Take this example. If there were 100 scheduled auctions, only 40 were actually sold and 50 auctions were reported, what do you think the auction clearance rate would be? 40 per cent (40/100), right? Wrong! The reported auction clearance rate in this example would actually be 80 per cent (40/50). Crazy? I think so, and my guess is that so would most of the general public."

ABC did a fact check and discovered this to be true:
http://www.abc.net.au/news/2013-12-15/auction-clearance-rates-base-on-incomplete-data/5143856
http://www.abc.net.au/news/2013-12-16/auction-clearance-rates-based-on-incomplete-data/5158480
I experienced this myself in 2012 when I noticed the auction clearance rate clearly not accurate and emailed APM for a clarification and their response was:
Hi Zoran,
The pdf of the results doesn't include suppressed results. Suppressed results aren't published on the pdf but are included in the ACR calculation. Also, the formula should be...
(S + SP + PN + SN) / (S + SP + SA + SN + PN
+ PI + NB + VB + W)
Cheers,
Clint McNabbResearch Analyst
Australian Property Monitors
www.apm.com.au
www.homepriceguide.com.au
Fairfax Media
<Deleted details>
On 2 December 2012 15:39, Zoran G <deleted>
wrote:
Dear
APM,
I
follow the Sydney auction clearance rates and I never understood how the
clearance rate is derived I thought I'd do some of my own analysis using your
published data:
I
converted the pdf data into text and then categorised all auctions and found
the following:
Result
|
Number
|
S
(Sold)
|
112
|
SP
(Sold Prior)
|
53
|
SN
(Sold not disclosed)
|
17
|
SA
(Sold After)
|
2
|
PN
(Sold Prior not disclosed)
|
20
|
PI
(Passed In)
|
49
|
NB
(No Bid)
|
18
|
VB(Vendor
Bid)
|
30
|
W
(Withdrawn)
|
50
|
TOTAL
|
351
|
APM's definition of the reported clearance rate is:
(Sold under the hammer + Sold prior)/ (All
Sold + Passed In + Withdrawn).
APM
summary for Sydney :
Saturday
1st December 2012
Property Snapshot
Total Properties: 363
Sold: 238
Withdrawn:
78
% Cleared:
54%
Total Sales: $210,748,800
Median:
$830,500 www.apmpropertydata.com.au/report/default.aspx
When I
calculate clearance rate using your definition I get a discrepancy:
(S +
SP + PN) / (S + SP + SN + SA + PN + PI + NB + VB + W)
|
53%
|
||
(S +
SP) / (S + SP + SN + SA + PN + PI + NB + VB + W)
|
47%
|
||
I can
not understand how you derive your clearance rate of 54%. Can you provide the
formula that you use? Also how did you get total properties to be 363 and
number of withdrawn auctions to be 78?
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